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Author Topic: You-who! Mandos! I have a link for you.
clockwork
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posted 29 March 2002 11:40 AM      Profile for clockwork     Send New Private Message      Edit/Delete Post  Reply With Quote 
I'm sure this might have come up before, but I can't be bother to find the threads:

Can language shape the way you think?

quote:
In the 1930s, American linguist Benjamin Lee Whorf argued persuasively that language did indeed affect thought. For instance, Eskimos, who parse "snow" into at least seven different terms, must find our simplistic way of talking about it unthinkable, he suggested [see "Snow by Any Other Name" ]. While Whorf's views fell out of favor--especially that native language created what amounts to a straitjacket for thought-they weren't forgotten. Now a group of cognitive psychologists has revived the search for the effects of language on the mind, with some provocative results.

[ March 29, 2002: Message edited by: clockwork ]


From: Pokaroo! | Registered: May 2001  |  IP: Logged
Mandos
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posted 30 March 2002 02:56 AM      Profile for Mandos   Author's Homepage     Send New Private Message      Edit/Delete Post  Reply With Quote 
I've dealt with all this before on babble and so I won't go into too much detail. Suffice it to say that I am aware that social constructivist views of language and cognition have been getting more popular. There are actually two confusions involved:
1) Definitions: If you include in "language" also what is intended to be signified by language, as a whole load of people seem to, then I cannot argue that language does not affect cognition. I consider, however, for empirical reasons that seem relatively obvious to me, that this definition is too broad and contain redundancies.
2) Of course what we receive as input, be it linguistic, visual, etc has an effect on our thinking. Whoever said it didn't? The question is, how much beyond anecdotal evidence can we demand a specific mechanism that makes language "special" this way?

From: There, there. | Registered: Jun 2001  |  IP: Logged
clockwork
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posted 30 March 2002 08:19 AM      Profile for clockwork     Send New Private Message      Edit/Delete Post  Reply With Quote 
Heheh... don't get me wrong. I just wanted your thoughts. If you remember the threads that this was discussed, I'd love it if you could link them. I vaguely remember discussions about this, but vaguely is the key term here.

I'm too lazy to search...


From: Pokaroo! | Registered: May 2001  |  IP: Logged
skdadl
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posted 30 March 2002 09:52 AM      Profile for skdadl     Send New Private Message      Edit/Delete Post  Reply With Quote 
quote:
how much beyond anecdotal evidence can we demand a specific mechanism that makes language "special" this way?

Mandos, I don't mean to irritate you, but I really want to understand that sentence and I don't. Can you elaborate just a bit? Specifically, are you wanting or not wanting to do this, find this (the mechanism), and what does "special" mean here?


From: gone | Registered: May 2001  |  IP: Logged
DrConway
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posted 30 March 2002 11:37 AM      Profile for DrConway     Send New Private Message      Edit/Delete Post  Reply With Quote 
I submit that language can indeed control the pattern of thought, and to a greater degree than most people would like to admit.

Consider the word "deficit". As a result of use and abuse of this word, we now have a language and a cultural pattern of thought that no longer recognizes the good of government or even a language that can aid in conceiving of government as a "good" entity.

A person time-travelled here from the 1960s would, and I say this quite literally, not be capable of understanding a modern discussion on the nature of government because his or her language has the precondition that government is a necessary thing.

(proviso: I may be slightly exaggerating.)


From: You shall not side with the great against the powerless. | Registered: May 2001  |  IP: Logged
nonsuch
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posted 30 March 2002 10:13 PM      Profile for nonsuch     Send New Private Message      Edit/Delete Post  Reply With Quote 
And yet people - especially children and horny post-adolescents - can communicate quite adaquately across linguistic, cultural, racial, and very probably temporal, obstacles.

The trick, i suppose, is to reduce essential definitions to some common denominator. Parse any sentence: who does what to/for/with whom/what?

Sure, language influences thought. But language does not necessarily determine the boundaries of thought. Break down the ideas to basic concepts, and you can find words or gestures that correspond in any language. Otherwise, deaf people could never learn to communicate... but they do.


From: coming and going | Registered: Sep 2001  |  IP: Logged
DrConway
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posted 30 March 2002 10:43 PM      Profile for DrConway     Send New Private Message      Edit/Delete Post  Reply With Quote 
quote:
Sure, language influences thought. But language does not necessarily determine the boundaries of thought.

I wouldn't be so dismissive if I were you. The sea change accomplished in the last twenty years has involved just that - changing the boundaries of thought as to what is possible or doable by government by changing the language associated with it. This is anecdotal, but I heard from somewhere that the word privatization and the concept it embodied didn't exist before 1981.

This is why a person from the 1960s would probably not be able to hold a discussion on government with a person from the 2000s. The person from the 2000s has already accepted, prior to the discussion, that there is a circumscribed boundary on the capabilities of government whereas the person in the 1960s has no such concept. This in turn drives the language they have for the idea that government can be a force for good.


From: You shall not side with the great against the powerless. | Registered: May 2001  |  IP: Logged
nonsuch
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posted 30 March 2002 11:40 PM      Profile for nonsuch     Send New Private Message      Edit/Delete Post  Reply With Quote 
I wasn't dismissive; i was optimistic (sort of, within my limited capability for optimism).

If a person from the 1960's had to talk to a person from the 2000's about government and deficit and things like that, i prefer to believe that we could manage it.
How we might go about it is to avoid certain contentious or ambigous words, and begin with basic concepts. Who does what to whom? Fill in your blanks; i fill in mine; we compare the results. We try to finds words that fit the blanks and that we both understand. We may have to get down to very small words before we met, but then we could start building up again.

It might take a while, but i'm pretty sure it's possible. Of course, it would help if the person from the 1960's had lived thought the 70's, 80's and 90's, rather than parachuting in with a time-machine, but that's not strictly necessary.

Humans have a great talent for deception; therefore, human language has a great scope for creating bullshit. But, since all humans are familiar with the concepts - if not the words - of preverication and obfuscation, they also have the tools for cutting through bullshit. Including the variety generated by scholars. (I finally got 'round to reading the article.) The names of colours never slowed down a painter; whether a door is closed or cerrado has never stopped anyone going through it; the gender of a toaster has no obvious effect on whether the bread gets burned. There is scholarship and then there is, for want of a better term, reality.

[ March 31, 2002: Message edited by: nonesuch ]


From: coming and going | Registered: Sep 2001  |  IP: Logged
jeff house
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posted 31 March 2002 08:17 PM      Profile for jeff house     Send New Private Message      Edit/Delete Post  Reply With Quote 
Sorry if this is anecdotal, but I have noticed that people from Somalia often talk about their relatives in ways which are foreign to me.

They regularly designate someone as their half-uncle-cousin brother. It turns out that there is a word in Somali for this relationship, and using the word arguably crystalizes the family connection in a way which English doesn't. I do not mean that the language causes the extended family to exist. No doubt the relationship began the other way around. But the continued availability of the words, I think, causes them to view people differently than if the words did not exist at all.


From: toronto | Registered: May 2001  |  IP: Logged
DrConway
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posted 01 April 2002 01:40 AM      Profile for DrConway     Send New Private Message      Edit/Delete Post  Reply With Quote 
quote:
It might take a while, but i'm pretty sure it's possible. Of course, it would help if the person from the 1960's had lived thought the 70's, 80's and 90's, rather than parachuting in with a time-machine, but that's not strictly necessary.

Au contraire. It IS necessary. Recall that our parents, those who grew up through the 1960s, 70s, 80s and 90s, both benefitted from the government interventionism of the 1960s and 70s but have since then been suckered in like most of the people our age as well into believing that government is limited and that it is incapable of doing what it once did.

But jumping someone over that sea change in assumptions would produce a conversation so unusual precisely because each participant would have such a fundamentally different conception of what government can do.


From: You shall not side with the great against the powerless. | Registered: May 2001  |  IP: Logged
nonsuch
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posted 01 April 2002 05:50 PM      Profile for nonsuch     Send New Private Message      Edit/Delete Post  Reply With Quote 
Okay (by the way, i am of your your parents' generation), it might be a bit confusing at first.
But is it a question of language?

For instance, the word 'privatization' did not exist when i was learning English. But i have no problem tracing it to etymological roots and grasping the concept. With practice, i can even use it in a sentence without retching. It means that some elected gangster is selling off the public assets i paid for, so that you and your putative children must pay for them all over again.

You can find (right here, if you look around) two people of the same age, speaking the same dialect, raised in the same educationial system, who nevertheless have different assumptions and sources of current information, and are totally incapable of communicating on certain subjects.

At the same time, you can find two people raised in different countries, with different mother tongues, in different decades, who nevertheless share assumptions and references, so that they understand each other perfectly.

[ April 01, 2002: Message edited by: nonesuch ]


From: coming and going | Registered: Sep 2001  |  IP: Logged
meades
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posted 01 April 2002 06:25 PM      Profile for meades     Send New Private Message      Edit/Delete Post  Reply With Quote 
quote:
You can have two people of the same age, speaking the same dialect, raised in the
same educationial system, who nevertheless have different assumptions and sources of
current information, and are totally incapable of communicating on certain subjects.

At the same time, you can have two people raised in different countries, with different
mother tongues, in different decades, who nevertheless share assumptions and
references, so that they understand each other perfectly.


Well, I think the point is that language will be a barrier, wether it's a different dialect, language, or from a different language family, or even if it's the same language/dialect/family, but from a different era.

That is, unless of course one of the parties is familiar with the other terminology. I would argue that with such knowledge, the person in question would have perhaps a wider understanding of certain realities, and perhaps be able to rise above the rhetoric which we find in any given dialect,language, lang. family, or era.


From: Sault Ste. Marie | Registered: May 2001  |  IP: Logged
Mandos
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posted 01 April 2002 06:33 PM      Profile for Mandos   Author's Homepage     Send New Private Message      Edit/Delete Post  Reply With Quote 
skdadl:
quote:
Mandos, I don't mean to irritate you, but I really want to understand that sentence and I don't. Can you elaborate just a bit? Specifically, are you wanting or not wanting to do this, find this (the mechanism), and what does "special" mean here?
I have nothing against finding it. I am claiming that it is infeasible to find it, and conceptually unnecessary. But if you want to go around finding it, you can. It's like trying to find out the reason why pi exists

"Special" means, in this context, different from other forms of input/output that the human mind may receive/send. People on this thread have mentioned "privatization" as an example of how language affects thought, but I see it the other way around--how thought affects language. There are art forms people wouldn't have thought about a long time ago, either. And technologies. Language is not "special" that way. That is, there is no reason why the introduction of "privatisation" and the ideological assumptions around it are actually a linguistic issue, as it involves features of cognition that are not specifically linguistic, aside, of course, from the structure of the word itself.


From: There, there. | Registered: Jun 2001  |  IP: Logged
aRoused
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posted 01 April 2002 11:32 PM      Profile for aRoused     Send New Private Message      Edit/Delete Post  Reply With Quote 
quote:
They regularly designate someone as their half-uncle-cousin brother. It turns out that there is a word in Somali for this relationship, and using the word arguably crystalizes the family connection in a way which English doesn't. I do not mean that the language causes the extended family to exist. No doubt the relationship began the other way around. But the continued availability of the words, I think, causes them to view people differently than if the words did not exist at all

Jeff: Teasing out and recording kinship terminology was a major component of anthropological field research in the past (less so now, mostly because these systems of terminology have already been teased out and recorded).

What's often forgotten is that English has a whole slew of terms for designating distant relations (second cousins twice removed, etc.) that nobody really uses any more. Why? I'm inclined to point to the decline of the importance of the extended family in providing social support structures, with the corresponding rise in reliance on the immediate family of father, mother, and siblings, with even grandparents, uncles/aunts and cousins being outside the "family" for the purposes of frequent interaction. (Note: This is of course a trend and not a hard rule, heck, my family doesn't fit that characterization nicely..)

More grist: English follows what anthropologists would term an "Eskimo" system of kinship terminology, IIRC. "Hawaiian" terminology would have you referring to everyone of a given generation by the same term, distinguished only by gender. "Sudanese" systems are like the Somalian example you gave, with a different kinship term for every possible relationship.

If you take the view that culture and all of its aspects is adaptive to the situation it arose in, then each of these systems (and the others that exist) speaks eloquently of the society making use of it.


From: The King's Royal Burgh of Eoforwich | Registered: Dec 2001  |  IP: Logged
nonsuch
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posted 01 April 2002 11:50 PM      Profile for nonsuch     Send New Private Message      Edit/Delete Post  Reply With Quote 
Related trivia:

Anyone see the Star Trek episode where Picard was trying to talk to an alien whose entire language consisted of references to ancient legends? A crock of poo*, but a cute example of finding ways to communicate.

(* "Fire torpedoes!" would take about 12 minutes to say... never mind the problem of building spaceships without new names for new tools.
And where did they get the language to make up the legends in the first place?)


From: coming and going | Registered: Sep 2001  |  IP: Logged
DrConway
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posted 02 April 2002 12:30 AM      Profile for DrConway     Send New Private Message      Edit/Delete Post  Reply With Quote 
"Darmok".
From: You shall not side with the great against the powerless. | Registered: May 2001  |  IP: Logged
clockwork
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posted 02 April 2002 07:49 AM      Profile for clockwork     Send New Private Message      Edit/Delete Post  Reply With Quote 
I think I agree with Mandos (and aRoused). I'd try to explain why I agree with him, but I'm having a hard time putting my thoughts into proper words.

In the Scientific American link, it uses an example of a key and shows that Spanish speaking people attribute "feminine" associations to the word while German speakers attribute "masculine" associations.
To me, it doesn't really mean much. For instance, in our culture "tree" might just generally mean "lump of wood that grows which the U.S. likes to slap tariffs on" while in Native cultures it might mean "magical spirit that protects us and provides life". Would that be a function of our language, or a function of the culture, our collective thoughts and actions?


From: Pokaroo! | Registered: May 2001  |  IP: Logged
nonsuch
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posted 02 April 2002 10:19 AM      Profile for nonsuch     Send New Private Message      Edit/Delete Post  Reply With Quote 
Actually, the gender of 'key' doesn't make any difference to its function (even if the Germans are more right), but the 'tree' example is significant. Culture, yes - ways of thinking about something like a tree effect one's actions toward that thing. The Indians won't waste it on PC self-promotional literature, for a start.
From: coming and going | Registered: Sep 2001  |  IP: Logged
jeff house
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posted 02 April 2002 11:55 AM      Profile for jeff house     Send New Private Message      Edit/Delete Post  Reply With Quote 
QUOTE: Jeff: Teasing out and recording kinship terminology was a major component of anthropological field research in the past (less so now, mostly because these systems of terminology have already been teased out and recorded).

What's often forgotten is that English has a whole slew of terms for designating distant relations (second cousins twice removed, etc.) that nobody really uses any more. UNQUOTE

Thank you for that information about teasing out kinship terminology; I hadn't known that.

I think you are right that the semi-disappearance of the once-in-existence English terminology for extended family relationships is largely a function of changes in social structure.

But I think having a word directly at hand, and one that is used repeatedly by others, does cause a slight difference in how the person spoken of is seen and understood. "He is my fourth cousin"
does not actually communicate much to me; to someone from Somalia, in their language, it may mean the person is obligated by custom to come to the defence of the other person, or perhaps, is too far removed in blood to be obligated by tradition to do so.


From: toronto | Registered: May 2001  |  IP: Logged

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