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Author Topic: Grammarian's Scheudenfreude: The $2-Million Comma
Catchfire
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posted 07 August 2006 11:47 AM      Profile for Catchfire   Author's Homepage     Send New Private Message      Edit/Delete Post  Reply With Quote 
Comma Chameleon

quote:
It could be the most costly piece of punctuation in Canada.

A grammatical blunder may force Rogers Communications Inc. to pay an extra $2.13-million to use utility poles in the Maritimes after the placement of a comma in a contract permitted the deal's cancellation.

The controversial comma sent lawyers and telecommunications regulators scrambling for their English textbooks in a bitter 18-month dispute that serves as an expensive reminder of the importance of punctuation.



From: On the heather | Registered: Apr 2003  |  IP: Logged
M. Spector
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posted 07 August 2006 01:04 PM      Profile for M. Spector   Author's Homepage     Send New Private Message      Edit/Delete Post  Reply With Quote 
I think the Rogers interpretation was the correct one, and it has nothing to do with the comma.

The result of the ruling is that the contract can be cancelled at any time on a year's notice. This result renders meaningless the reference in the agreement to five-year terms.

It is apparent to me that the agreement contemplated that it would be in force for at least a term of five years, and would be automatically renewed for a further five-year term unless written notice was given, at least a year in advance of the 5-year renewal date. If notice was not given, then the agreement would continue for a further five year term, at the end of which it would expire if the written notice was given, but otherwise would be renewed for a further five-year term, and so on.


From: One millihelen: The amount of beauty required to launch one ship. | Registered: Feb 2005  |  IP: Logged
Catchfire
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posted 07 August 2006 01:09 PM      Profile for Catchfire   Author's Homepage     Send New Private Message      Edit/Delete Post  Reply With Quote 
The blunder:
quote:
This agreement shall continue in force for a period of five years from the date it is made, and thereafter for successive five year terms, unless and until terminated by one year prior notice in writing by either party.

Grammatically, the second comma serves no purpose unless it means to affect the two clauses equally: otherwise, there would be no comma at all. Aliant can rightly claim that they interpreted the contract to the letter, regardless of what Rogers claims it intended. CRTC agreed with Aliant's case, and hence, Aliant can terminate the contract and raise prices if Rogers wants to keep using their utility poles.


From: On the heather | Registered: Apr 2003  |  IP: Logged
M. Spector
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posted 07 August 2006 01:19 PM      Profile for M. Spector   Author's Homepage     Send New Private Message      Edit/Delete Post  Reply With Quote 
Only if you disregard the reference to five-year terms, in which case the result would be the same as if the agreement had read:

"This agreement shall continue in perpetuity unless and until terminated by one year prior notice in writing by either party."

[ 07 August 2006: Message edited by: M. Spector ]


From: One millihelen: The amount of beauty required to launch one ship. | Registered: Feb 2005  |  IP: Logged
Naci_Sey
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posted 07 August 2006 01:25 PM      Profile for Naci_Sey   Author's Homepage     Send New Private Message      Edit/Delete Post  Reply With Quote 
I agree with the experts, something I thought I'd never say. The two commas serve to bracket the phrase "and thereafter for successive five (5) year terms."

That makes the thorny passage read both: 1) "This agreement shall ... continue in force for a period of five (5) years from the date it is made unless and until terminated by one year prior notice in writing by either party" and 2) "This agreement shall ... continue in force for a period of five (5) years from the date it is made and thereafter for successive five (5) year terms unless and until terminated by one year prior notice in writing by either party."

Because of the bracketing, the 'less and until' clause applies to both of the earlier ones.


From: BC | Registered: Apr 2006  |  IP: Logged
Catchfire
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posted 07 August 2006 01:34 PM      Profile for Catchfire   Author's Homepage     Send New Private Message      Edit/Delete Post  Reply With Quote 
You misunderstand my argument for one of intent rather than of grammar. Of course the interpretation of Rogers is the one both parties originally intended (or more accurately, Aliant was happy to let Rogers think it was, knowing they could probably end the contract whenever they felt it was profitable to do so,) but the punctuation allows them to get away with breaking the terms. That's why the story is funny, and why it's a story at all. For some reason, you're playing the straight man at a funny man party.

Anyway, here's another costly punctuation error from the annals of history (Source Lynne Truss's Eats, Shoots, and Leaves:

quote:
The Transvaal was a Boer republic at the time, and it was believed that the British and other settlers around Johannesburg (who were denied civil rights) would rise up if Jameson invaded. But unfortunately, when the settlers sent their telegraphic invitation to Jameson, it included a tragic ambiguity:

It is under these circumstances that we feel constrained to call upon you to come to our aid should a disturbance arise here the circumstances are so extreme that we cannot but believe that you and the men under you will not fail to come to the rescue of people who are so situated.


Alas, a period was inserted after "aid" (Come at once, Jameson!) rather than after "here" (Come when you're needed! We'll let you know!) and as a result, Jameson launched his disastrous raid, it ended badly, no one came to help him, and he started the second Boer War. Pity.

[ 07 August 2006: Message edited by: Catchfire ]


From: On the heather | Registered: Apr 2003  |  IP: Logged
M. Spector
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posted 07 August 2006 02:10 PM      Profile for M. Spector   Author's Homepage     Send New Private Message      Edit/Delete Post  Reply With Quote 
I don't misunderstand your grammatical argument at all. I agree that the cancellation clause applies to both the first five year term and any subsequent five year terms.

But how then does the cancellation clause operate? That's the real issue here.

Could the agreement be cancelled, say, 18 months after it was signed, if one party gave a year's written notice to that effect after the first six months? That's what Aliant said, but I think that's ignoring the real meaning of the words - specifically the refernce to five-year terms.

The only reason to have five-year renewable terms in an agreement is to have the agreement's life guaranteed for a period of five years, at the end of which it may terminate or be renewed. It's just like a five-year term in a mortgage or a lease; the idea is that the agreement will subsist for at least five years, after which it may be renewed for five more years, or terminated. Leases and mortgages may allow for termination before the expiry of a "term" (be it a 5-year, 3-year, one-year term, or whatever), but in that case it is recognized as being an exception to the "term" concept, and there is usually some kind of penalty attached to such early termination. In the normal course it is anticipated that the life of the agreement will be measured in "terms" of a stated length. Otherwise, as I have said repeatedly, you might as well just say the agreement can be terminated at any time, and do away with the idea of a term of years altogether.


From: One millihelen: The amount of beauty required to launch one ship. | Registered: Feb 2005  |  IP: Logged
rasmus
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posted 08 August 2006 12:12 PM      Profile for rasmus   Author's Homepage     Send New Private Message      Edit/Delete Post  Reply With Quote 
Grammarian here. And it's Schadenfreude to you.

From the point of view of punctuation, the Aliant interpretation is exactly correct. However, punctuation is not the only basis of interpretation. We also have to interpret in such a way that, as Spector says, whole clauses deliberately drafted and included by the authors are not made otiose by our interpretation: they must communicate something that would not have been communicated were they not there. What purpose is served by mentioning the five year contract if this can be broken at any time with one year's notice? The effect of adding this language to the agreement is exactly nothing, on the Aliant interpretation. If the five-year clause is to be more than sheer pleonasm, if it is to have any force, then the Rogers' interpretation must be correct. And the court is wrong.

[ 08 August 2006: Message edited by: rasmus raven ]


From: Fortune favours the bold | Registered: May 2001  |  IP: Logged
glasstech
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posted 08 August 2006 12:34 PM      Profile for glasstech     Send New Private Message      Edit/Delete Post  Reply With Quote 
Neither party in this little OKAY Corral shoot out seem to have any concern for the rate payers who are going to foot the bill for this silliness! How much money has been wasted so some laywers and business suits can bragg they stuck it to the other guys. In the end , it's the rate payers that foot the bill.
All this for a stupid comma!

From: Whitehorse, Yukon | Registered: Dec 2005  |  IP: Logged
Catchfire
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posted 08 August 2006 12:34 PM      Profile for Catchfire   Author's Homepage     Send New Private Message      Edit/Delete Post  Reply With Quote 
Well, rasmus, if legal writing wasn't already notorious for its "pleonasm," then you might have a case. But it is, and you don't. If redundancy rendered the rules of grammar impotent, than we should scarcely have them in the first place. If a double negative, for example, showed up in a legal document, it wouldn't be excused for its "otioseness" but would instead conform to the rules laid out in Strunk & White.

As Lynne Truss points out in Eats, Shoots and Leaves, "lawyers eschew the comma as far as possible, regarding it as a troublemaker," and then she remarks of "the semantic havoc they create when either wrongly inserted. . .or carelessley omitted." This is not an uncommon problem, and as such, the lawyers should have known better--half of them did. The courts are gleefully and spitefully correct.


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rasmus
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posted 08 August 2006 01:01 PM      Profile for rasmus   Author's Homepage     Send New Private Message      Edit/Delete Post  Reply With Quote 
Some kinds of redundancy are also repetitious. Repetition DOES serve a function in a legal document, as it safeguards against the agreement being undermined by just such an error as we see here. Repetition can also serve to make absolutely clear to all what is being agreed to.

But in this case, the resulting pleonasm is not of that nature, quite obviously. It is purely and utterly useless, like a bicycle for a fish.

I also enjoyed the story when it came out, for the reasons you mention above. I assume the courts would be less likely to punish a contracting party that wasn't so well-resourced and presumed to know better. Nonetheless, I don't think it's in general comforting to know that the courts will be deciding matters of fairness almost spitefully on the basis of a misplaced comma when almost all disinterested can agree the intention was otherwise.


From: Fortune favours the bold | Registered: May 2001  |  IP: Logged
Catchfire
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posted 08 August 2006 01:14 PM      Profile for Catchfire   Author's Homepage     Send New Private Message      Edit/Delete Post  Reply With Quote 
Surely, that is true. It wouldn't be funny if, say, the courts dispossessed a poor farmer of his centuries-old family farm because the mortgage left out a critical full stop. And, to be honest, I doubt the Canadiam legal system would have ruled the way they did, if, as you said, it wasn't Rogers. Besides, it wasn't exactly "the courts" that made this ruling, was it? It was the CRTC and their regulators. Perhaps they have a different sort of system where "intent" isn't quite so important.

I should also mention that the writing of Canadian Supreme Court rulings--a far-cry from their lesser colleagues who scavange in real estate offices--is among the best I've seen for accuracy and clarity.


From: On the heather | Registered: Apr 2003  |  IP: Logged
M. Spector
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posted 19 October 2006 12:42 PM      Profile for M. Spector   Author's Homepage     Send New Private Message      Edit/Delete Post  Reply With Quote 
Update
quote:
Rogers, which lost a debate this summer over the placement of a comma in a contract to lease thousands of poles in New Brunswick, is now turning to the French language to make its case.

Federal regulators ruled in July that a single comma in a 14-page contract meant the deal could be scrapped by Aliant, potentially resulting in as much as $2.13-million in extra costs for Rogers.

After parsing the wording, the Canadian Radio-television and Telecommunications Commission determined the contract spelled out in plain English that Aliant could exit the deal.

Au contraire, Rogers' lawyers say. The company has spent the past two months hunting down a French version of the same contract. And because that document doesn't use the same punctuation, the decision should be overturned, Rogers says.

The matter is now heading back to the CRTC, pitting the country's two official languages against each other.

"Because we're an officially bilingual country, documents like this have a French version and an English version -- and both are equally valid," said Ken Englehart, Rogers' vice-president of regulatory affairs. "It's kind of one of the advantages of having two official languages."
....

Rogers has since marshalled a number of grammatical and legal sources to argue that the comma doesn't matter.

But the French contract and the slightly different wording in that document form the bulk of the company's appeal.

The case of the tele-comma, as it has been dubbed in legal circles, has drawn widespread attention. Several law schools in Canada and the U.S. have flagged the dispute as a cautionary tale about the importance of proper grammar in law.



From: One millihelen: The amount of beauty required to launch one ship. | Registered: Feb 2005  |  IP: Logged
M. Spector
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posted 25 September 2008 07:34 AM      Profile for M. Spector   Author's Homepage     Send New Private Message      Edit/Delete Post  Reply With Quote 
I missed this decision when it came out. The CRTC ended up agreeing with me:
quote:
The French language has trumped the comma in a contract dispute between Rogers Communications Inc. and Bell Aliant Regional Communications LP.

Rogers claimed victory yesterday after the French version of a five-year contract convinced the Canadian Radio-television and Telecommunications Commission to overturn an earlier decision in which the regulator said the placement of a comma justified Bell Aliant's decision to terminate the contract early.

In the English version, the CRTC said last year, the insertion of a comma to separate a termination clause from a clause about future renewals of the contract suggested the contract could be terminated before it expired in 2007. Had there been no comma, it would have been clear that the right to termination applied only to the end of the contract that set telephone pole access fees and future renewals. In the French version, the commission concluded yesterday, there were no errant commas to cloud the termination rights. - Fin. Post



From: One millihelen: The amount of beauty required to launch one ship. | Registered: Feb 2005  |  IP: Logged
Tommy_Paine
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posted 25 September 2008 04:14 PM      Profile for Tommy_Paine     Send New Private Message      Edit/Delete Post  Reply With Quote 
Well, it doesn't really speak to either law, or grammar.

I think Rogers just did the usual thing, and took the CRTC out for a free lunch and drinks, until they were comma tose.


From: The Alley, Behind Montgomery's Tavern | Registered: Apr 2001  |  IP: Logged

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